Does it make sense to use two neuroleptics, one in a high dose as a dopamine antagnist and the other in a low dose as a dopamine agonist? Apparently, the antagonist suppresses the action of the agonist, is this true? It uses aripyrazole 15 mg antipsychotic and 100 mg amisulpiride activating... the problem is that this amisulpiride does not work, i.e. it does not release dopamine ... the doctor said that aripyrazole is a blocker of other drugs and competes with them and thus blocks the action of amisulpiride ... changed me to lurasidone... in this case, will lurasidone not block the action of amisulpiride as aripyrazole did? Is it possible to combine two neuroleptics at all, one in an antipsychotic dose and the other in an axising dose so that there is an antipsychotic effect and at the same time activating dopamine-releasing??? I could wean dopamine antagonists but it is not allowed because of the psychotic symptoms and at the same time I want something for symptoms such as apathy and pale emotions for which the best is amisulpiride releasing dopamine in a low dose ... Best regards