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Pawel8907

Warszawa 2 years ago

Why is perazine antipsychotic at a low dose?

How is it that pernasine is in a maximum dose of 600 mg and the antipsychotic effect starts from 75 mg according to the writing? After all, 75 mg is not even 1/6 of the maximum dose but less so how is it possible that it works antispychotically? Such aripyrazole or amisulpiride work in doses of 15 mg and 400 mg antipsychotically so it is half of the maximum dose and pernasine works in such a low dose ... I do not understand this, I always thought that you need at least half the maximum dose of neuroleptic for it to act antipsychotically ...

1 answer, 2 subscribers

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Ewa Pilch Pharmacist, Editor

2 years ago

For all, especially long-term used drugs, it is recommended to use the smallest, effective dose. Perazine is considered the drug of first choice for the treatment of m.in delusional syndromes due to its low toxicity and balanced profile of action. Different mechanisms of action, as well as the chemical structure of drugs, make different doses necessary to achieve similar therapeutic effects. Doses of individual neuroleptics should be selected individually by the attending physician. When initiating therapy for acute psychotic disorders, it is recommended to use a dose of perazine between 50 and 150 mg / day. In hospitalized patients, the maximum dose may be up to 800 mg/day. However, for patients treated at home, a maximum dose of up to 300 mg/day is recommended. The mechanism of action of the drug is, m.in, the effect on dopaminergic receptors in the subcortical centers of the brain, hypothalamus and limbic system: https://www.gdziepolek.pl/produkty/60765/pernazinum-tabletki/ulotka/17029 I encourage you to read additional materials that may be useful: https://www.gdziepolek.pl/kategorie/choroby-psychiczne-i-zaburzenia-psychologiczne https://www.gdziepolek.pl/artykuly/jak-zyc-ze-schizofrenia

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